Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables?

[jrdixon]

The Adenier and Khrennikov paper is pointing out that QM cannot explain a no signaling violation that they see in the data from an experiment (assuming signaling was impossible). My papers imagine a scenario where the no signaling violation and the Bell violation can be explained (without signaling and without nonlocal effects). So yes, my scenario disagrees with QM on whether the no signaling equalities can be violated, but agrees with QM on the Bell correlation.