It's interesting to note the parallel discussion going on at http://motls.blogspot.com/2016/07/resolv...-term.html. LM invited a guest blog from George Musser (whom I don't know) addressing non-locality. Although it's hard to tell without reading his book, I probably agree on the main issues with Musser. QM predicts certain correlations for space-separated measurements but doesn't explain how it happens. Evidently the answer is: some sort of non-local (but non-signaling) influence. LM's answer: you're an idiot. That's it; there's absolutely no substance to his reply.
Anyway, I hope someone here can give a better answer to the question, "Why not non-locality?" Merely pointing out that I'm an idiot - true though it may be - is not enough!
Anyway, I hope someone here can give a better answer to the question, "Why not non-locality?" Merely pointing out that I'm an idiot - true though it may be - is not enough!