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Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables?
#59
(07-11-2016, 05:46 PM)Schmelzer Wrote:
(07-11-2016, 05:58 AM)FrediFizzx Wrote:
(07-11-2016, 05:08 AM)Schmelzer Wrote: Your renaming of the phrase "Bell inequalities" is irrelevant and therefore ignored.
???  What up doc?  How did I rename?
A reference to your #17  where you refer to some inequality with a <4 which you have invented and refer to it (with a Wiki link) as if it would be Bell's inequality.

Now you are just being dishonest.  I never ever said it was a Bell inequality.  I have always said that the inequality with a bound of 4 is a different inequality from Bell-CHSH.  And of course I didn't invent it.  It is a natural consequence of having independent expectation terms.  Which is easy to show by simple inspection.

1 - (-1) +1 +1 = 4
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RE: Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables? - by FrediFizzx - 07-12-2016, 09:16 PM

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