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Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables?
#19
(06-06-2016, 08:03 AM)Schmelzer Wrote: Sorry, but this makes no sense at all. At least I'm unable to give this text a meaningful interpretation.

It is really quite simple. In the Wikipedia entry, when they calculated the CHSH string of expectation terms there was no dependency between the terms like there is in Bell-CHSH. Therefore they used the inequality with the bound of 4 which I easily demonstrated via simple mathematical inspection. IOW, they cheated when they claim there is a violation of Bell-CHSH. It's apples and oranges. Pure and simple. Believe me, it is mathematically impossible for anything to violate any of the Bell inequalities. You can't do it is why you are not even trying to demonstrate that it is possible. If you think you can do it, then let's see a rigorous demonstration mathematically. And then I will show you where you make your mistake.
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RE: Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables? - by FrediFizzx - 06-06-2016, 08:18 AM

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