06-06-2016, 08:44 AM

(06-06-2016, 08:35 AM)Schmelzer Wrote: No, they used no inequality at all, but computed what quantum theory predicts. The result was something greater than 2, thus, violated the Bell-CHSH inequality, which would hold in a Einstein-causal realistic theory.

The whole point is that QT is not equivalent to any Einstein-causal realistic theory. So, of course, if they compute the QT prediction, they use the QT rules and not some inequality which holds for Einstein-causal realistic theories.

Of course, nothing can violate mathematical proofs, which is a triviality. But you can have theories which violate the assumptions of the Bell-CHSH theorems, thus, can violate the resulting inequalities.

Do you agree that the expectation terms are independent from each other in the QM calculation in the Wikipedia entry? If so, then they are using the inequality with the bound of 4 as I proved by simple mathematical inspection. If you don't agree then you need to demonstrate the dependency between the expectation terms. You can't because it is impossible.