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Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables?
(06-06-2016, 05:03 AM)FrediFizzx Wrote: If nobody has been interested in that inequality, then why is it that it is the one that QM and the experiments all use?
Nobody uses it. What is used is the CHSH inequality which is \(|S|\le 2\). Which can be derived for Einstein-causal realistic theories.

(06-06-2016, 05:03 AM)FrediFizzx Wrote: Anyways, you should just admit that you can't demonstrate exactly how QM or the experiments violate any of the Bell inequalities. It is quite simple math to show that it is impossible for anything including QM, experiments and LHV models to violate the Bell inequalities.
What? It is sufficient to compute the QM predictions for the particular experiment. Or to use the experimental results. Of course, they violate the CHSH inequality \(|S|\le 2\), not the trivial FrediFizzx inequality \(|S|\le 4\).

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RE: Bell's theorem - for or against Hidden Variables? - by Schmelzer - 06-06-2016, 07:15 AM

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